SAMPLE EXAM QUESTIONS FOR JUS 300 (VICTIMOLOGY)

1. The notion of "victim" being a scapegoat or sacrifice comes from what?
a. the lex talionis
b. the Bible
c. ancient Hebrew law *
d. Romano-Germanic law

2. The idea of retribution
a. was started by Stephen Schafer
b. is that the offender should suffer in proportion to the degree of harm caused *
c. is the opposite of restitution
d. is that the victim played an active role in his or her victimization

3. Totally unacceptable or immoral behavior is referred to as
a mala prohibita
b. lex talionis
c. ex parte
d. mala in se *

4. Victim precipitation means
a. the offender carefully selects victims with certain characteristics
b. the offender lacks a mens rea
c. the victim somehow caused his or her own victimization *
d. victim instigation of criminal prosecution

5. Which of the following statements best characterizes the victim precipitation argument?
a. criminal acts can be explained by the behavior of the offender
b. the victim becomes activated only when the offender emits certain signals
c. the victim's behavior is necessary and sufficient to trigger the commission of a criminal act *
d. offenders plan their criminal acts

6. Marvin E. Wolfgang was responsible for which of the following?
a. drawing attention to the intraracial nature of homicide *
b. writing The Criminal and His Victim
c. not using an empirical methodology
d. describing the subculture of nonviolence

7. According to Luckenbill, which of the following plays a major role in victim-precipitated crime?
a. race
b. drugs, particularly marijuana
c.  personal appearance
d. interpersonal relationships and escalation *

8. Backlash to the idea of victim precipitation included criticisms of all the following assumptions except:
a. victim behavior causes crime
b. victims emit signals to which offenders must act
c. victim behavior is a necessary and sufficient causal mechanism
d. victims often know their perpetrators *

9. Which of the following persons is associated with the emergence of the field of victimology?
a. Edwin Sutherland
b. Hans von Hentig *
c. Robert K. Merton
d. Emile Durkheim

10. Which of the following persons is sometimes credited with being the "father of victimology"?
a. August Vollmer
b. Beniamin Mendelsohn *
c. Stephen Schafer
d. Marvin E. Wolfgang

11. Mendelsohn classified victims according to
a. their culpability in a criminal act *
b. their biological traits
c. their ethnicity
d. their personality characteristics

12. Which of the following was not a reason for the emergence of the victim movement?
a. the pharmaceutical industry *
b. the women's movement
c. the children's rights movement
d. the growing crime problem

13. The "dark figure of crime" refers to
a. crimes not known to the police *
b. criminal acts committed by police officers
c. crimes known to the police
d. crimes that take place between 6 P.M. and 6 A.M.

14. Which of the following crimes is not measured by the National Crime Survey?
a. counterfeiting *
b. burglary
c. battery
d. auto theft

15. Which of the following is a major reason why victims do not report crimes to the police?
a. a phone is not readily available
b. apathy
c. uncertainty that the situation was a crime
d. they do not think the police will do anything *

16. Which of the following best describes the term "repeat victimization"?
a. multiple suspects confronting a single victim
b. offender recidivism
c. victim recidivism *
d. a single suspect confronting multiple victims

17. Which of the following best describes the "proximity factor"?
a. offenders and victims tend to come from the same age groups
b. offenders and victims tend to come from the same residential location *
c. victims differ from offenders in that they lead less solitary lives
d. offenders differ from victims in that they all tend to come from the same area

18. "Twice-victimized", "double-insult", or "second-order trauma" refers to:
a. the fact that a majority of victims are recidivists
b. crime victims enduring further losses as the case winds through the criminal justice system *
c. hidden victimization that exists throughout all social classes
d. insurance companies failing to reimburse eligible victims

19. Which of the following services are usually not offered by victim-witness assistance programs?
a. property return
b. court orientation
c. emergency medical attention *
d. employer intervention

20. Which of the following assumptions have guided efforts to provide victim-witness services?
a. the furtherance of police-community relations
b. witnesses have a civic duty to cooperate with the authorities
c. witness cooperation is essential to suspect rehabilitation
d. witness cooperation is essential to successful convictions *

21. Victim-witness programs
a. reach out to all victims
b. were designed to save the criminal justice system *
c. were the result of a cost-benefit analysis
d. help maximize double-victimization

22. The term "tertiary victims" refers to
a. people who watch or read about crime in the news *
b. people who service victim clients
c. people whose lives are dedicated to the advocacy of victim rights
d. people whose lives have been touched by a tumultuous event, such as witnessing a suicide

23. A plan that requires offenders to pay their victims for expenses resulting from the crime is called:
a. victim compensation
b. victim assistance
c. restitution *
d. retribution

24. Which of the following is the most appropriate rationale for restitution?
a. the social contract argument
b. the social welfare argument
c. collective incapacitation
d. rehabilitation *

25. A plan that requires the state to reimburse victims for expenses resulting from the crime is called:
a. victim compensation *
b. victim assistance
c. restitution
d. retribution

26. Which of the following is the most appropriate rationale for victim compensation?
a. individual incapacitation
b. collective incapacitation
c. social contract argument *
d. rehabilitation

27. Which of the following categories can not be paid under most state compensation laws?
a. medical costs
b. automobile repair *
c. lost wages
d. funeral expenses

28. Despite physical injury, which of the following would not be compensable under most state victim compensation statutes?
a. any attempt to prevent a crime
b. aiding a crime victim
c. apprehending a criminal*
d. assisting a law enforcement officer

29. What effect have victim compensation programs had on citizen crime reporting?
a. violent crime reporting increases, while property crime reporting stays the same
b. both violent and property crime reporting increase
c. violent crime reporting increases initially and then tapers off
d. violent crime reporting stays the same *

30. Suppose a worker has notified their supervisor that the door lock to their office is not working properly and for whatever reason, the supervisor fails to replace or repair the lock and the victim suffers a rape in her office while working late one night. The offender eludes police apprehension. Which of the following recourses is available to the victim?
a. compensation
b. restitution
c. criminal charges against supervisor
d. civil lawsuit against employer *

31. Approximately what percentage of female homicide victims are killed by their husbands or boyfriends?
a. 15 percent
b. 30 percent *
c. 60 percent
d. 90 percent

32. The "cycle of violence" with respect to domestic violence means that:
a. children who witness domestic violence between their parents do not grow up to become batterers themselves
b. spousal violence grows over the years until one partner finally kills the other
c. a battery takes place after a tension-building phase and is followed by a period of reconciliation*
d. eventually the woman will leave or divorce the husband

33. Which of the following situations would not be covered under a domestic violence statute?
a. violence involving two cohabiting homosexual lovers
b. violence between siblings
c. violence between grandfather and grandson
d. violence between two roommates *

34. Which of the following studies was instrumental in establishing policy guidelines for handling spouse abuse incidents?
a. the Zimbardo experiment
b. the Minneapolis experiment *
c. the President's Task Force on Family Violence
d. the President's Task Force on Victims of Crime

35. Which of the following statements best exemplifies the idea of "learned helplessness"?
a. victims in violent relationships report greater success over time in defusing their partner's anger
b. victims in violent relationships learn how to become more contrite and more successful during the reconciliation phase
c. victims are trying to learn how to control their offenders
d. isolation and financial dependence are prime ingredients involved in why victims remain with their abusers *

36. Which of the following theoretical explanations would best describe a woman's reasoning that it is all right for husbands to hit their wives?
a. intrapsychic perspective
b. learned helplessness
c. sociocultural explanation *
d. PTSD

37. During which phase of the cycle of violence would one expect to encounter the idea of disinhibition as an explanation?
a. the battering episode *
b. the tension-building phase
c. the arrest phase
d. the reconciliation phase

38. According to the law in most states, a person typically arrested for domestic violence:
a. may be released on bail only if he or she promises not to return to the scene of the offense and commit another act of violence
b. is eligible for release on his or her own recognizance (ROR) prior to first appearance before a judge or magistrate
c. is not entitled to bail prior to first appearance *
d. has 30 days in which to vacate the domicile

39. Which of the following does not characterize an injunction in a spouse abuse situation?
a. it can be issued on an ex parte basis
b. it has the same effect as a trespass warning
c. the filing fee can be waived
d. it is the same thing as a divorce *

40. Which of the following is not a typical funding source for battered women's shelters?
a. grants from organizations like the United Way
b. marriage license fees
c. private donations
d. victim compensation payouts *

41. If the respondent (the person against whom an injunction has been filed) violates any provision of an injunction for protection against domestic violence, that act is considered to be which of the following?
a.  a rule infraction
b. a misdemeanor *
c. an administrative violation
d. a violation of probation

42. Which of the following is not a key feature in a typical antistalking law?
a. whether the parties know each other *
b. repeatedly following another person
c. placing the victim in fear for his or her well-being
d. the criminal intent of the offender

43. Which of the following is not a type of stalker that researchers have identified?
a. the disinterested passer-by *
b. the psychopathic personality stalker
c. the celebrity stalker
d. the lust stalker

44. When stalking takes place in conjunction with domestic violence, it is most likely to be associated with which phase of the cycle of violence?
a. the tension-building phase
b. the battering episode
c. the reconciliation period
d. when the battered spouse decides to end the cycle of violence *

45. What perspective is being adopted when a mental health counselor or therapist concentrates on the battering episode as an indicator of other underlying tensions in a relationship?
a. family violence *
b. spouse abuse
c. feminist perspective
d. Freudian approach

46. What percentage of the elderly population reside in nursing homes, foster homes or similar institutional settings?
a. 5 percent *
b. 20 percent
c. 40 percent
d. 60 percent

47. The odds of criminal victimization for the elderly are:
a. about the same as other age groups
b. slightly higher than other age groups
c. lower than other age groups *
d. markedly higher than other age groups

48. The fear-victimization paradox means:
a. that the objective and subjective odds of victimization are balanced
b. that the objective odds of victimization are much higher than the subjective odds
c. that the objective odds of victimization are much lower than the subjective odds *
d. there is no difference between the objective and subjective odds of victimization

49. Which of the following variables is a vulnerability factor for the elderly?
a. living alone or with someone
b. residential location
c. amount of fear of crime
d. degree of social support *

50. The withholding of basic food, clothing and shelter from an aged victim by a caretaker is known as:
a. abuse
b. neglect *
c. aggravated elderly abuse
d. third degree assault

51. Which of the following is not a theoretical explanation for elderly abuse and neglect?
a. situational transaction
b. role reversal
c. subculture of violence *
d. social exchange

52. Which of the following is the most prevalent form of elder maltreatment?
a. physical abuse
b. active neglect
c. material abuse
d. self-neglect *

53. Which of the following is a problem associated with mandatory reporting of elder abuse?
a. the doctor-patient relationship is broken and the doctor may be sued
b. it places the blame on the offender
c. it allows intervention into unknown cases of abuse
d. it reinforces ageism by focusing on the victim rather than the offender *

54. Which of the following is not a reason why elder victimization is becoming better known?
a. violence against the elderly receives media exposure
b. the growing population of the elderly
c. mandatory reporting regulations
d. offender apprehension *

55. What is the most common type of child maltreatment in substantiated cases?
a. neglect *
b. physical abuse
c. sexual abuse
d. emotional abuse

56. The term "battered child syndrome" was coined by a:
a. psychologist
b. social worker
c. lawyer
d. physician *

57. Which of the following charges typically does not appear within child maltreatment statutes?
a. aggravated child abuse
b. persistent nonsupport
c. misuse of child support money
d. failing to place a child in a safety seat in a motor vehicle *

58. Abuse generally does not refer to which of the following?
a. withholding of life's essentials *
b. nonaccidental infliction of injury
c. fondling a child
d. pornography

59. Which of the following is not a privileged relationship during the prosecution of child abuse?
a. priest-penitent
b. lawyer-client
c. psychologist-patient
d. doctor-patient *

60. Suppose emergency room doctors contact the local police department after confirming diagnosis of physical abuse of a 12-year-old child. After the child receives medical treatment, what immediate action should the police officer take?
a. arrest the adult who accompanied the child to the hospital
b. place the child in protective custody *
c. get a search warrant to see whether there are other children in the house because they might be at risk of becoming abused
d. initiate the adoption process

61. The phrase "sick but slick" refers to:
a. parents who physically abuse their children but are smart enough not to inflict any visible injury
b. children who are too traumatized to tell anyone about their victimization
c. the fact that almost all child abusers are mentally ill
d. abusers who are deceptive and lie *

62. Which of the following is not a public policy strategy for combating child maltreatment?
a. profiling of offenders and victims
b. victim compensation *
c. parenting education
d. legal reform

63. An in camera proceeding:
a. allows child testimony to be videotaped outside the courtroom for later use *
b. violates the right to a public trial
c. violates the defendant's right to cross-examination of all witnesses
d. violates the hearsay rule regarding third-party testimony

64. "Megan's Law" deals with:
a. voluntary commitment of sexual predators
b. sex offender registration *
c. the penalty of castration
d. the establishment of child abuse hotlines

65. Which type of pedophile is most likely to have a homosexual orientation?
a. fixated
b. regressed *
c. situational
d. preferential

66. When a researcher tries to organize or classify observations according to what they have in common, he or she is creating:
a. an ideal type
b. a symbol
c. a typology *
d. a theory

67. Which of the following is not a physiological explanation for rape?
a. uncontrollable sex drive
b. lack of available partners
c. reaction to repressed desires *
d. consequence of the natural selection process

68. Which of the following terms best describes the most common form of rape?
a. stranger rape
b. acquaintance rape *
c. sadistic rape
d. spousal rape

69. In terms of victim and offender characteristics, most rape incidents in the United States are what?
a. interracial
b. intraracial *
c. between people of the same gender
d. involve people who do not know each other

70. Nonstranger rapes account for more than _____ percent of all rape victimization cases.
a. 20
b. 30
c. 50 *
d. 65

71. A jurisdiction that does not recognize marital rape under any condition is said to have:
a. an absolute exemption *
b. a shield law
c. spousal inclusion
d. a consanguinity exemption

72. A shield provision in rape law means that:
a. newspapers cannot publish the victim's name or address
b. the person is entitled to assistance under the Witness Protection Act
c. television news reporters may not display any pictures or videos showing the victim's face
d. defense lawyers cannot bring up the victim's sexual history *

73. Which of the following is not a stage in the crisis reaction repair cycle?
a. reinstitution *
b. reorganization
c. recoil
d. impact

74. Which of the following does not take place during the initial stage of the crisis reaction repair cycle?
a. guilt
b. shock
c. anger
d. phobia *

75. The "rape trauma syndrome" is considered to be:
a. a form of post-traumatic stress disorder *
b. a form of therapeutic intervention
c. a short-term reaction
d. triggered by previctimization events

76. The first responsibility of an officer who responds to a rape incident is to:
a. determine immediate medical needs *
b. arrange to transport the victim immediately to the hospital
c. encourage the victim to shower and change clothes in order to feel better
d. get the victim to sign an affidavit stating that he or she intends to cooperate

77. A "rape kit" is designed to help:
a. police officers provide emotional first-aid to victims
b. prosecutors maintain an up-to-date listing of relevant case law
c. judges determine appropriate punishments under sentencing guidelines
d. physicians during the forensic portion of the medical examination *

78. The historical standard of a sexual assault victim fighting her attacker and demonstrating the "utmost resistance" is an example of:
a. victim precipitation
b. victim provocation
c. lack of victim consent *
d. offender mens rea

79. Evidentiary reforms regarding rape laws have:
a. significantly impacted the number of cases reported to the police
b. significantly impacted the number of cases prosecuted by the state attorney
c. significantly impacted the number of prisoners housed by correctional authorities
d. had very little, if any, impact on the criminal justice system *

80. Which of the following takes place during the sentencing phase of a rape trial?
a. consideration of the Victim Impact Statement
c. consideration of aggravating circumstances *
d. a re-invocation of shield provisions
e. a relaxation of the privilege against self-incrimination

81. The most common motive for stranger violence is:
a. anger
b. retaliation
c. hate
d. robbery *

82. In what percentage of cases (approximately) were carjackers successful in stealing the vehicle?
a. 30%
b. 40%
c. 50% *
d. 60%

83. The chances of getting killed in robbery are greater if what?
a. the offender is gang-related and the victim belongs to a rival gang
b. the offender has a gun and the victim has a gun
c. the offender has a gun and the victim resists *
d. the offender is mentally deranged and the victim resists

84. Which group of victims is most sought out by serial killers?
a. children (boys and girls)
b. older women alone
c. derelicts/transients
d. young women alone *

85. Homicide is a leading cause of death among:
a. young black males *
b. young black females
c. young white females
d. older black males

86. Which of the following best describes a felony murder?
a. a traffic accident fatality
b. a death involving gross negligence
c. a homicide committed during the course of a robbery *
d. deaths resulting from medical malpractice

87. A "mushroom shooting" refers to a situation involving:
a. more than one victim
b. more than one shooter
c. homicide events that have escalated to multiple victims
d. stray bullets that are not intended for any one particular person *

88. The phrase "differential distribution of homicide rates" refers to the fact that murder rates are:
a. uniformly distributed throughout time and space
b. not uniformly distributed throughout time and space *
c. not randomly distributed throughout time and space
d. dependent upon random chance

89. Homicide rates tend to be the highest in which portion of the Untied States?
a. north
b. south *
c. east
d. west

90. Which of the following is not a step in the death notification process?
a. information gathering
b. assessment
c. referral
d. messenger debriefing *

91. What type of reported violent incident occurs most in the workplace?
a. shooting
b. stabbing
c. fistfights *
d. rape

92. What kind of business establishment has the third highest rate of occupational homicide?
a. grocery stores
b. justice/public order offices *
c. eating/drinking places
d. hotels/motels

93. Which of the following is not part of the typical workplace violence stress cycle?
a. traumatic event
b. failure of social support system *
c. obsession
d. revenge

94. What type of harassment did O'Connor find was common in his 1997 study of fast-food restaurants?
a. sexual
b. nonsexual *
c. racial
d. age-based

95. Sexual harassment does not occur in the workplace unless an unwelcome sexual advance is:
a. clearly understood as unwelcome
b. accompanied by obsession
c. witnessed by a third party
d. pervasive or continuous *

96. Which amendment do victim advocates hope to change by adding a sentence promoting victim's rights?
a. the 4th
b. the 6th *
c. the 14th
d. the 26th

97. Which of the following is absent from the federal crime victims' "Bill of Rights"?
a. the right to veto a jury's verdict *
b. the right to be notified of court proceedings
c. the right to be present at all public court proceedings
d. the right to information about conviction, sentencing, imprisonment and release

98. Allocution is a legal term referring to:
a. a death penalty practice
b. a sanction against prosecutors who do not abide by victim rights legislation
c. a victim compensation hearing
d. an orally delivered victim impact statement *

99. "Opportunity reduction" techniques are most associated with:
a. Crime Prevention Thru Environmental Design
b. environmental criminology *
c. defensible space theory
d. situational crime prevention

100. "Target hardening" techniques are most associated with:
a. Crime Prevention Thru Environmental Design
b. environmental criminology
c. defensible space theory
d. situational crime prevention *

Last updated: 06/19/03
Syllabus for Victimology
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